Sign up freeSign in

Practice quiz · by a Quizcard user

USMLE Step 1 Microbiology: High-Yield Bacteria, Viruses and Fungi — quiz

15 multiple-choice questions covering Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, Clostridium botulinum vs tetani, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Bacillus anthracis. One answer each; you get a score at the end and the explanation for every question. No account needed.

Take the quiz Study the flashcards first Make a quiz from my notes

Updated 2026-11-04. Keys 1–4 pick an answer, Enter moves on. Redo it any time, in order or shuffled.

The questions

Answers and explanations are shown after you finish.

  1. Staphylococcus aureus

    A patient develops fever, hypotension, and a diffuse sunburn-like rash after prolonged tampon use. Blood cultures grow coagulase-positive, catalase-positive cocci in clusters. Which toxin is most directly responsible for this presentation?

    • Shiga-like toxin
    • Exfoliatin
    • TSST-1
    • Protein A
  2. Streptococcus pyogenes

    A throat culture from a child with pharyngitis grows beta-hemolytic, catalase-negative cocci that are sensitive to bacitracin. Which organism is this?

    • Streptococcus pyogenes
    • Streptococcus agalactiae
    • Enterococcus faecalis
    • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Clostridium botulinum vs tetani

    A patient develops descending flaccid paralysis after eating improperly canned vegetables. Compared to tetanus toxin, the toxin responsible here acts by which mechanism?

    • Blocking acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
    • Increasing cAMP via Gs activation
    • Inhibiting elongation factor-2
    • Blocking glycine/GABA release in the spinal cord
  4. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

    A child with a gray pharyngeal pseudomembrane and myocarditis is diagnosed with a toxin-mediated infection. The toxin responsible causes cell death by which mechanism?

    • Blocking glycine release in the spinal cord
    • ADP-ribosylating elongation factor-2, halting protein synthesis
    • Increasing cAMP via permanent Gs activation
    • Inhibiting the 60S ribosomal subunit directly
  5. Bacillus anthracis

    A wool-mill worker develops flu-like symptoms that progress rapidly to severe respiratory distress with a widened mediastinum on chest x-ray. Which organism is the likely cause?

    • Clostridium perfringens
    • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    • Bacillus anthracis
    • Bacillus cereus
  6. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

    A sexually active patient has purulent urethral discharge. Gram-negative diplococci grow on Thayer-Martin agar but fail to ferment maltose. Compared with Neisseria meningitidis, this organism is distinguished by which feature?

    • It is gram-positive
    • It causes Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
    • It lacks a polysaccharide capsule
    • It ferments maltose
  7. Salmonella vs Shigella

    Compared with Salmonella, an infection with Shigella is characterized by which combination of features?

    • H2S production and motility
    • Lower infectious dose and non-motility
    • Higher infectious dose and motility
    • Frequent bacteremia
  8. Klebsiella pneumoniae

    An alcoholic patient develops aspiration pneumonia with thick, blood-tinged ('currant jelly') sputum. Gram-negative encapsulated lactose-fermenting rods are cultured. Which virulence factor best explains the viscous sputum?

    • Pili
    • Polysaccharide capsule
    • Exotoxin A
    • Lipid A endotoxin
  9. Vibrio cholerae

    A patient with profuse rice-water diarrhea after drinking contaminated water is found to have a toxin that causes massive fluid secretion. What is the toxin's mechanism?

    • ADP-ribosylating elongation factor-2
    • Increasing cGMP levels
    • Permanently activating the Gs protein, raising cAMP
    • Inhibiting the inhibitory Gi protein
  10. Bordetella pertussis

    An unvaccinated child with paroxysmal coughing and a notable lymphocytosis is diagnosed with pertussis. The pertussis toxin impairs immune cell chemotaxis by which mechanism?

    • Blocking acetylcholine release
    • Disabling the inhibitory Gi protein, raising cAMP
    • ADP-ribosylating elongation factor-2
    • Activating the Gs protein
  11. Treponema pallidum

    A patient has a positive nontreponemal RPR test for syphilis. Which test should be used to confirm this diagnosis?

    • Urease breath test
    • VDRL
    • FTA-ABS
    • Monospot test
  12. Chlamydia trachomatis

    A patient being treated for gonorrhea with ceftriaxone is also given azithromycin. What is the main reason for adding azithromycin?

    • Chlamydia trachomatis has peptidoglycan requiring beta-lactams
    • To prevent progression to neurosyphilis
    • To reduce development of antibiotic resistance
    • To cover possible co-infection with Chlamydia trachomatis
  13. Epstein-Barr virus

    A college student with fever, pharyngitis, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy is mistakenly treated with amoxicillin for strep throat and develops a diffuse rash. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

    • Scarlet fever
    • Cytomegalovirus infection
    • Epstein-Barr virus mononucleosis
    • Streptococcal pharyngitis
  14. HIV

    In a patient newly diagnosed with HIV, which viral enzyme is responsible for converting the ssRNA genome into DNA before it integrates into the host chromatin?

    • gp120 binding to CD4
    • Integrase
    • Protease
    • Reverse transcriptase
  15. Aspergillus fumigatus

    A patient with a history of cavitary tuberculosis develops hemoptysis. Imaging reveals a mobile mass within a pre-existing lung cavity, and microscopy shows septate hyphae branching at acute angles. What is the diagnosis?

    • Histoplasmosis
    • Cryptococcosis
    • Mucormycosis
    • Aspergilloma (Aspergillus fumigatus)
Take the quiz

Try it with your own material

Paste notes, upload a PDF, or pick any of your decks and Quizcard writes a quiz with explanations in about a minute. Quizzes from your own decks are free.

Quiz yourself on your own materialSee how Quizcard works